Posted by Pangea (22.214.171.124) on April 18, 2004 at 16:25:19:
In Reply to: To Pangea on Mosiac problems Part 3 posted by Christian Scholar on April 17, 2004 at 21:35:15:
YOU POSTED: "I believe you are taking this whole issue based on a post modern feminist position it seems, my friend, and not from the perspective of an ancient and cruel world..."
No, I'm taking this from the position that Jews and Christians claim that a beneficient, omnipotent, and omnscient God gave these laws to man. I say the inherent unfairness and sociological and biological errors in the laws themselves are evidence that (1) God is not omniscient and beneficent, or (2) God did not create the laws, Jewish priests did. I respectfully submit my believe that #2 is more likely correct.
It may be true that Jewish women were better treated by Mosaic Law than other women of the region were by their own cultural traditions and laws. But this isn't saying much, is it? My guess is that women in biblical Judaism were about as well off as many Moslem women are today in more moderate countries like Jordan or Syria.
In my universe, an interventionist God would want to elevate his "chosen people" above the typical customs and prejudices of the era, not pander to them!
YOU ASKED: "And one more note, where in the world did you get the idea that a woman is to be put to death if she does not have an intact hymen? Read your words, that is what you said. And that is no where in the Mosaic law."
I repectfully beg to differ:
"But if this thing be true [that a husband finds his bride NOT to be a maid], and the tokens of virginity be not found for the damsel: Then they shall bring out the damsel to the door of her father's house, and the men of her city shall stone her with stones that she die: because she hath wrought folly in Israel, to play the whore in her fahter's house: so shalt thou put away evil from Israel." (Deut. 20-21)
The prosecution rests, me Lord!
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